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Project Management Interview Questions For Freshers:
Q1. Daniel is managing the development of an e-commerce website for his organization. Daniel enjoys coercive powers. He has assigned Julie, a project team member, to facilitate the team meetings. During any team meeting, Julie must?
Ans: Since the project manager enjoys coercive powers, it seems likely that he has assigned a neutral facilitator to facilitate the team meetings. Facilitation is a management skill. A good facilitator should always remain neutral in a meeting and help facilitate consensus when required.
Q2. You are a consulting project manager and have been contracted by an investment bank to run a large information technology project that is expected to last 15 months. During the Direct and Manage Project Work process, you discover that several regulatory requirements have not been addressed in the project management plan. Failure to meet these requirements could result in legal action against the company. However, implementing the technology to comply with these regulations could exceed the budget and scope of the project, and could result in the cancellation of the project. What should you do?
Ans: All regulatory requirements must be met. Doing nothing or considering this a scope creep are not valid options. You would have to request additional funds, but first, you need to submit a change request for approval. A change request can be submitted as a part of the Direct and Manage Project Work process.
Q3. A fundamentally functional organization creates a special project team to handle a critical project. This team has many of the characteristics of a project team in a project organization and has a Project Manager dedicated to the project. Such an organization is called?
Ans: This organization is called a composite organization.
Q4. As you are creating the Activity List, which technique is recommended for subdividing the project into smaller components called activities?
Ans: The decomposition technique allows the project manager to create smaller and more manageable pieces of work from the larger work packages.
Q5. Linda has been assigned to establish a PMO in her organization. Linda believes that this project cannot be successful unless all of the key project stakeholders support the project. She also believes that she needs to pay special attention to stakeholder management to ensure the success of this project. First, she needs to develop her stakeholder register. To produce the project stakeholder register, which of the following processes must Linda start?
Ans: The stakeholder register is developed during the Identify Stakeholders process.
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Q6. The Create WBS process identifies the deliverables at the _________ level in the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)?
Ans: The Create WBS process identifies the deliverables at the lowest level in the WBS, the work package. Project work packages are typically decomposed into smaller components called activities, which represent the work that is necessary to complete the work package.
Q7. What is the primary risk when including reserves or contingency allowances in your cost estimate?
Ans: Contingency funds are used to handle cost uncertainty due to unforeseen purchases that may be needed during a project. These funds are generally used for items that are likely to occur but are not certain to occur.
Q8. Which of the following statements most accurately describes a project scenario?
Ans: Staffing is typically highest during the execution phase of the project. The other three responses may not hold true. Projects can move forward into subsequent phases without the deliverables of the prior phase being completely approved; this is known as fast-tracking. Changes during the initial phases of the project are the least expensive. The influence of the stakeholders is highest during the start of the project and declines as the project moves to completion.
Q9. Which of the following is not an organizational process asset that is used during the Plan Human Resource Management process?
Ans: Standardized stakeholder list is not a valid organizational asset used in the Plan Human Resource Management process. The other choices are valid assets. Other assets include historical information on organizational structures that have worked in previous projects and organizational processes and policies.
Q10. With the establishment of a PMO in an organization, employees are adopting project management jargon. However, a few employees are still struggling with project management terminologies. One of the most common sources of confusion is the difference between a project stakeholder and a key stakeholder. Who are the key stakeholders?
Ans: All of the given choices correctly define the project stakeholders. However, the key stakeholders are the subset of the project stakeholders that are in a decision making position.
Q11. The Perform Integrated Change Control process includes several configuration management activities. Which of the following is not a configuration management activity?
Ans: The change request is not a valid response. The configuration management activities included in the Perform Integrated Change Control process are Configuration Identification, Configuration Status Accounting, Configuration Verification, and Auditing.
Q12. After brainstorming potential project risks, what is the recommended method for prioritizing these risks and their mitigation plans?
Ans: A probability and impact matrix will help filter the high-risk items and high-impact items from the others so that you can focus your attention on these riskier items.
Q13. If you are influencing factors that create changes to the cost of the project, which process are you using?
Ans: Control Costs is the process of managing the project’s costs and the changes that threaten the bottom line.
Q14. If you are requesting a vendor quote for a defined scope, what is the recommended contract type?
Ans: The fixed-price contract works best with a well-defined project scope.
Q15. All of the following are interpersonal skills except?
Ans: Resisting change is not a valid interpersonal skill. The other choices are examples of interpersonal skills.
Q16. What is the logical sequence of the Project Scope Management processes?
Ans: The logical sequence of the six scope management processes is: Plan Scope Management, Collect Requirements, Define Scope, Create WBS, Validate Scope and Control Scope.
Q17. The most detailed level of the WBS is called the _________?
Ans: The work package is the lowest and most detailed level of the WBS and can be scheduled, cost estimated, monitored, and controlled.
Q18. Which of the following is a hierarchical representation of project risks?
Ans: The Risk Breakdown Structure (RBS) is a hierarchical presentation of the project risks sorted by risk categories.
Q19. Which of the following is a tool or technique used in the Monitor and Control Project Work process?
Ans: Expert Judgment is a tool or technique used in the Monitor and Control Project Work process.
Q20. A large network hardware upgrade project was scheduled to take place over a weekend. During the course of the implementation, several previously unidentified dependencies on additional materials were discovered. The project manager gave approval for the tech staff doing the implementation to procure with corporate credit cards several hundred dollars’ worth of additional equipment required to complete the implementation. However, these additional expenses caused the project to exceed its budget. How should the project manager handle this?
Ans: Notifying project stakeholders and following proper procedures for dealing with budget variances is the best response. Attempting to pass off or hide an unexpected expense in another budget or in expense reports rather than following proper procedures is dishonest and unprofessional. The PMI Code of ethics requires project managers, to be honest, take responsibility for errors, and follow all organizational rules and policies.
Q21. During the Plan Procurement Management phase, the make-or _______ analysis must be completed. This technique prompts the project team to determine the source of their item?
Ans: The make-or-buy analysis is a technique used by the project manager to determine whether a particular work can be best completed by the project team or should be procured from outside sources.
Q22. Which of these types of precedence relationships is least commonly used in the Precedence Diagramming Method?
Ans: Start to Finish relationships indicate that the next task cannot be completed until the one preceding it has started. This type is not commonly used.
Q23. A RACI chart is an example of a _________?
Ans: A RACI chart outlines in matrix form, the project tasks, and for each task, who is responsible, who is accountable, whom to consult, and whom to inform.
Q24. If the project’s current total earned value (EV) is $100,000 and the actual amount spent (AC) is $95,000, what is the cost variance of the project?
Ans: The cost variance (CV) equals EV – AC. In this case, the CV = $5,000.
Q25. Your company has assigned you to serve temporarily as a project manager at a company located outside your home country. On your first day on the job, while meeting with a vendor you are presented with a gift. The corporate policy at the headquarters in your home country prohibits employees from accepting these types of gifts. However, as you are new to this location, you believe—but are not sure—that the local police and local custom may differ. How should you respond?
Ans: While organizational and cultural differences can cause conflict, the project manager is bound by the code of ethics to practice honesty, respect, and professionalism, and to follow policies, regulations, and laws pertaining. The best choice is to decline the gift and confer with management about gift policies.
Project Management Interview Questions For Intermediates:
Q26. If you are writing a proposal for additional funding, which communication style should you choose?
Ans: Since this will be an official project document, it should be formal. Additionally, since you are requesting money from someone higher up in the organization, you are creating a vertical communication.
Q27. If you want a group of experts to identify project risks but you also want unbiased data, what is an appropriate technique to use?
Ans: The Delphi technique involves anonymous questionnaires circulated to a group of experts and provides an unbiased assessment of the risks.
Q28. If you are working on a project with a constantly changing scope, which type of contract would work best when hiring an outside vendor to complete a portion of the work?
Ans: A cost-reimbursable contract will allow the contract to change as the project scope changes.
Q29. Which process of integrative project management documents the actions necessary to define, prepare, integrate, and coordinate all subsidiary plans into a project management plan?
Ans: This statement describes the Develop Project Management Plan process.
Q30. Mary is currently focusing on controlling key stakeholder engagement on her project. The project management plan is an essential input to this process. Which of the following components of the project management plan is least likely to be used during this process?
Ans: All of the given choices are the components of the project management plan that can be used during the Control Stakeholder Engagement process. However, the key project stakeholders are typically not interested in the minor details of the project; they are more interested in the project’s objectives, its current progress, and current risks and issues. From the given choices, “the selected project management processes for the project” is the weakest choice.
Q31. A project manager scheduled a review at the end of a phase, with the objective of obtaining authorization to close the current project phase and initiate the next phase. Which of the following is an incorrect way of describing this review?
Ans: Stage Gates, Phase Gates and Kill Points all refer to a phase end review with the objective of obtaining authorization to close the current phase and start the next one. This is a retrospective review of the current phase. Phase planning, on the other hand, is performed early during the planning phase of the project.
Q32. Measuring the quality of items in a sample on a pass/fail basis is called?
Ans: Attribute sampling measures the quality of items in a sample on a pass/fail basis; variable sampling measures the quality on a continuous scale.
Q33. The Requirements Traceability Matrix helps in tracing all of the following except?
Ans: Requirements Traceability Matrix is an output of the Collect Requirements process. It is used for tracing requirements to project scope, objectives, and test strategy. Tracing requirements to project risk is not a valid use.
Q34. Which of the following should you not use as an input into creating the WBS structure?
Ans: The Bill of Material (BOM) is not used as an input in the Create WBS process. The other three are valid inputs.
Q35. You are on the vendor selection committee for a large IT project that you will be managing for your company. Your friend works for a company that is planning to bid on the project. During a social dinner, your friend tells you that his job is on the line if his company does not win the contract. What should you do?
Ans: During the procurement process, predefined criteria are used to select vendors to supply goods and services. Circumventing this process to benefit a friend is a conflict of interest and is unfair to other vendors competing in good faith. The project management code of ethics demands that practitioners adhere to their standards at all times. The best response is to notify the project stakeholders that you have a conflict of interest, and excuse yourself from the selection committee.
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Q36. Which term best describes the Identify Risks process?
Ans: The Identify Risks process is an ongoing, iterative process as risks are often identified throughout the project’s life cycle.
Q37. During the Plan Risk Management process, assigning _________will help you and the project team identify all important risks and work more effectively during the identification process?
Ans: Risk categories provide a structure that ensures a comprehensive process of systematically identifying risks and that contributes to the effectiveness and quality of the process.
Q38. Which of these processes is not a Project Time Management process?
Ans: Create WBS is a process in the Project Scope Management area. The other options are all Project Time Management processes.
Q39. The technique most commonly used by project management software packages to construct a project schedule network diagram is?
Ans: The method used by most project management software packages to construct a project schedule network diagram is Activity-On-Node (AON). This method uses boxes or rectangles, called nodes, to represent activities. It connects the nodes with arrows showing the logical relationships among them.
Q40. Which of the following defines the total scope of the project and represents the work specified in the current approved project scope statement?
Ans: The WBS is a hierarchical decomposition of the work to be performed by the project team. It defines the total scope of the project. It represents the work specified in the currently approved project scope statement.
Q41. If you are creating a new WBS for your project, what should you do to save time during the creation process?
Ans: Creating the WBS is a very important process, but often a previous WBS can be used as a template to save time and avoid the risk of forgetting something important.
Q42. Which of these precedence relationships is most commonly used in the Precedence Diagramming Method?
Ans: Finish-to-Start relationships indicate that the next task is not able to start until the one preceding it is completed. This is the most commonly used type of activity relationship.
Q43. You are the project manager in your organization. You have little authority over the projects you manage, and you are primarily engaged in project coordination activities. You are currently struggling with obtaining the required human resources for your project during the Acquire Project Team process. To obtain these resources, with whom do you need to negotiate?
Ans: Since you have little authority over the projects you manage, you are working for a weak matrix organization. In such organizations, the functional managers have more authority. To obtain the required resources from the functional managers, you need to use the “Negotiation” tool and technique from the Acquire Project Team process.
Q44. An effective quality audit should be?
Ans: To provide the best results, a quality audit should be a structured process performed by an independent entity.
Q45. What is the traditional way to display a reporting structure among project team members?
Ans: A hierarchical-type organization chart can clearly show roles and reporting relationships within a team.
Q46. The Project Charter formally authorizes a project. Who authorizes the project charter?
Ans: A project initiator or sponsor external to the project, at a level that is appropriate to funding the project, authorizes the project charter.
Q47. In an ongoing project, the project sponsor and a manager of the performing organization are having conflicts. What would be your comment on this situation?
Ans: The project manager needs to recognize that the stakeholders may have conflicting interests and objectives. It is the responsibility of the project manager to manage the stakeholders’ expectations successfully.
Q48. Project risks should be identified by?
Ans: While it is not feasible to invite everyone to the risk identification meetings, everyone should be encouraged to identify risks as they encounter them.
Q49. A control chart should always contain?
Ans: Upper and lower control limits allow the control chart to serve its purpose of indicating when a process is in or out of control.
Q50. When would Rolling Wave Planning be useful in a project?
Ans: Rolling Wave Planning is a technique used to create a more detailed work plan while keeping the right level of detail for each activity: Activities happening sooner have more detail than those further in the future.
Project Management Interview Questions For Experienced:
Q51. Which of the following is an input to the Develop Project Team process?
Ans: Resource calendars are inputs to the Develop Project Team process.
Q52. Successful conflict management results in?
Ans: Successful conflict management results in greater productivity and positive working relationships.
Q53. The transition from one phase to another within a project’s life cycle (e.g., from design to manufacturing) is typically marked by?
Ans: The transition from one phase to another within a project’s lifecycle typically involves, and is usually defined by, some form of technology transfer or handoff. This is also called a kill point.
Q54. Ongoing operations and a project both have Initiating Processes, but only a project has_______?
Ans: A project is a finite effort; the Initiating Process Group starts the cycle, and the Closing Process Group ends the cycle.
Q55. Which of the following is an enterprise environmental factor?
Ans: Commercial databases are considered enterprise environmental factors. The other choices are organizational process assets.
Q56. Estimating the type and quantities of material, people, equipment, and supplies required to perform each activity is?
Ans: Estimate Activity Resources is the process of estimating the type and quantities of material, people, equipment, and supplies required to perform each activity.
Q57. Which of the following is a classical organizational structure?
Ans: A functional organization is a classical organizational structure.
Q58. Fill in the blank: _______ means developing in steps and continuing by increments?
Ans: Progressive elaboration is a characteristic of projects. It allows a project management team to manage the project to a greater level as the project evolves.
Q59. Defining a new project or a new phase of an existing project relates to:
Ans: The Initiating Process group consists of the processes performed to define a new project or a new phase of an existing project by obtaining authorization to start the project or phase.
Q60. Which of the following is not a project competing constraint?
Ans: Six competing project constraints are scope, quality, schedule, budget, resources, and risk. Procurement is not a project competing constraint.
Q61. You are managing a multi-million dollar project and discover that several critical pieces of data in the project information repository have been modified without authorization. What should you do?
Ans: Notifying the appropriate staff of an information security breach and providing details to assist with an investigation is the appropriate response. The project manager is responsible for maintaining an accurate project information base and protecting the intellectual property of others, in accordance with the code of ethics. Failing to notify the project or corporate staff that there has been unauthorized access to critical information violates the PMI code.
Also Read: Critical Chain Project Management
Q62. If you are developing a Project Management Plan, how should you determine the level of detail to be included in the plan?
Ans: The level of detail required in a Project Management Plan would vary by project and would include only the details necessary for the project.
Q63. If you want to have multiple vendors bid on your contract, what is the best way to ensure that all vendors have the same information before bidding?
Ans: A bidder conference is a good way to ensure that all bidders have the same information at the same time and to ensure fairness and equity within the bidding process.
Q64. Randy is managing a project and identifies that there are eight stakeholders in the project. He is concerned that he might end up with an unmanageable number of communication channels. How many communication channels does Randy have to plan for?
Ans: The correct response is 28. The formula for the number of communication channels is n*(n – 1)/2, where n is the number of stakeholders. In this case, n = 8, so it works out to 8*(8 – 1)/2 = 28.
Q65. Julie is currently populating her project’s stakeholder register with the names and details of the people identified during the Identify Stakeholders process. Some of these people are not supporting the project, but they can directly influence the project. Julie is adding these people to her project’s stakeholder register because?
Ans: Projects have both positive and negative stakeholders. All of these stakeholders need to be managed carefully, and their details must be recorded in the project stakeholder register.
Q66. You have been asked to establish a project charter for your new project. According to PMBOK, who normally has the responsibility to authorize the charter?
Ans: The project initiator or sponsor external to the project authorizes the project charter. However, a project manager should be involved in the process as early as possible.
Q67. In general, Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis is?
Ans: Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis is quicker than Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis, which is not always required by the project.
Q68. As a project manager, you perform various project performance measurements to assess the magnitude of variation. You then attempt to determine the cause and decide whether corrective action is required. This is known as:
Ans: This is known as Variance Analysis. As project manager, you would then attempt to determine the cause of the variance relative to the scope baseline, and then decide whether corrective action is required.
Q69. Two efficiency indicators that reflect the cost and schedule performance of a project are:
Ans: The Cost Performance Index (CPI) and the Schedule Performance Index (SPI) are two efficiency indicators that reflect the cost and schedule performance of the project.
Q70. Sarah has just started the Identify Stakeholders process for her project. She is currently looking for a template for the stakeholder register so that she does not have to reinvent the wheel. Where can she find stakeholder register templates?
Ans: Neither the project charter nor the project management plan contains any project document templates. Templates are organizational process assets.
Q71. If you want to compress a project schedule, what are two of the recommended alternatives to consider?
Ans: Crashing and fast-tracking can compress the project’s schedule when necessary, but might come at a higher cost and rework potential.
Q72. A project manager wishes to expand an existing list of sellers. Which of the following techniques should he or she consider?
Ans: Advertising is a good way to expand existing lists of sellers. Advertisements can be placed in general circulation publications in order to achieve this.
Q73. Which of these tools is not a part of the Seven Basic Tools of Quality?
Ans: The seven basic tools of quality are: Cause and effect diagrams, control charts, flowcharting, histograms, Pareto charts, check sheets, and scatter diagrams.
Know More about Project Management Tools
Q74. Which quality control technique or tool should be used when trying to determine the cause of a major defect?
Ans: A fishbone diagram, also called a cause-and-effect diagram, helps identify potential causes of an issue or problem.
Q75. During a project update meeting for the key stakeholders, the schedule of some project activities was challenged. The VP of Operations claimed that some of the critical path activities cannot be executed as scheduled as they will disturb critical operations. The VP has requested the rescheduling of these tasks so that they are performed during the non-working times of the business. What should the project manager do first?
Ans: All of the tasks in the choices need to be performed. However, the question is asking for the task to be performed first. The identified issue must be documented in the project’s issue log first. This should be captured and recorded during the meeting. The rest of the tasks can be performed after the meeting.
Frequently Asked Questions by PMP Interviewers
Q76. Why is it important to have a staff release plan for people within the project team?
Ans: A staff release plan provides a clean breakpoint for an individual and saves the project money in the process.
Q77. Midway through a project, a project manager determined that the project was running way behind schedule. If the project manager needs to shorten the project schedule without changing the project scope, which of the following schedule compression techniques could be applied?
Ans: Crashing is a technique that can be applied to compress the project schedule without changing the project scope. The other technique is fast-tracking.
Read Now to Know More About Project Management Tools And Techniques
Q78. At the end of a project, what will your schedule variance be equal to?
Ans: The schedule variance is the earned value minus the planned value. At the end of the project, all of the planned values should be earned, and the differences should be zero.
Q79. Quantitative risk analysis should be performed:
Ans: Since the quantitative risk analysis is a more in-depth process, it should only be performed on prioritized risks to minimize impact to the overall project schedule.
Q80. On a process improvement project, you are standing in for a project manager who is out on vacation for two weeks. During project meetings, it becomes apparent that there is a great deal of conflict among stakeholders. Furthermore, as you review the project documentation, you discover that the vacationing project manager had made several critical project decisions without gathering inputs from the stakeholders. Some of these decisions resulted in changes to the project scope and did not go through the formal change management process. What should you do?
Ans: The best choice is to notify the stakeholders that the scope has changed without authorization. Intentionally disregarding the project process and policies for any reason is unacceptable. Knowingly ignoring an error in scope, schedule, cost, or other project factors and disregarding policies represent violations of PMI’s code of ethics. Furthermore, project managers are bound by the code to report ethics violations by others to appropriate management.
Q81. While analyzing a project, the project manager calculated the ratio of the Earned Value (EV) to the Actual Costs (AC) and obtained a value of 1.2. The project manager decided that this was an unfavorable condition for the project and decided to take corrective action. What is your view?
Ans: The project manager is not correct. Cost Performance Index (CPI) is the ratio of EV to AC. A value greater than one represents a favorable condition for the project. The project manager has misinterpreted the situation.
Q82. Which of these is not an approved Estimate Activity Durations technique?
Ans: Analogous, parametric, and three-point estimating techniques are all accepted practices for determining the correct amount of time required for a portion of the project. The Critical Path Analysis techniques evaluate the whole project schedule.
Q83. If you are working on a project where there is no definite detailed scope, but similar projects have been completed in the past, what is the correct Estimate Activity Durations tool to use?
Ans: Analogous estimation relies on comparing a project to previous projects that were similar in nature.
Q84. As a project manager, you would like to show the relationship between two variables to help your project team understand the quality impacts better. Which tool should be used?
Ans: A scatter diagram plots several occurrences of two variables (one on each axis). Often a relationship between the two variables can then be determined, based on how closely they fit a geometric model.
Q85. You have been asked to give an executive presentation on the status of your project. Just before you walk into the meeting, you are informed that a critical resource for the project is no longer available, which could result in a substantial delay to the project. However, you believe there may be an alternative resource that could be used. What do you tell the executive committee?
Ans: Include the newly discovered information in your executive presence. Failure to disclose a known risk until a mitigation plan is developed is a violation of the PMI code of ethics. It mandates that project managers are to be truthful in their communications and provide accurate and timely information.
Q86. In a cause and effect diagram, which of these is not a potential cause?
Ans: A cause-and-effect diagram helps determine the root cause behind a problem statement. The potential causes of a specific effect fall into these categories: Time, machine, method, material, energy, measurement, personnel, and environment.
Q87. Which of the following is incorrectly represented by the term Progressive Elaboration?
Ans: The distinction between progressive elaboration and scope creep needs to be understood since the two terms are different. The changes to scope (especially in an uncontrolled manner) are called scope creep. In contrast, progressive elaboration involves building on or elaborating the output of a previous phase.
Q88. Which document describes the project’s deliverables and the work required to create those deliverables?
Ans: The project scope statement is the correct response. This document describes the project’s deliverables in detail and the work that is required to create those deliverables. It also forms the baseline for evaluating whether requests for changes are within or outside the project’s boundaries.
Q89. During a presentation to management, you want to display the project schedule with only the key deliverables displayed. What is the correct tool for this purpose?
Ans: A milestone chart displays only the key deliverables and is simple and easy to understand.
Q90. Susan is about to review her project stakeholder management plan to make some necessary adjustments. She has her project management plan, the recent issue log, and the work performance data. Which of the following inputs is still missing for this process?
Ans: Since Susan is planning to adjust her project stakeholder management plan, this implies that she is about to start the Control Stakeholder Engagement process. The stakeholder management plan and the communication management plan are the components of the project management plan; therefore, these are already included. The project charter is not an input of the Control Stakeholder Engagement process. The missing input to the process is the project documents.
Q91. Which of these items are important to address when determining each person’s role in the project team?
Ans: All four of these are important to consider when considering someone for a position within the project team: Role, authority, responsibility, and competency.
Q92. If you want to reduce the number of quality inspections and thus reduce the cost of quality control for your project, which technique should be used?
Ans: Statistical sampling will provide sufficient inspection to ensure a high likelihood of a quality product while saving money for the project.
Q93. When beginning a new outsourcing project, what is the best way to determine from which companies you should request a bid?
Ans: A qualified seller list is a list of sellers that have been pre-screened for their qualifications and experience so that procurements are directed only too likely sellers who can work on the project.
Q94. Which of the following is not a general management technique used to generate different approaches to execute and perform the project work?
Ans: Alternatives Identification concerns itself with identifying techniques to generate different approaches to execute and perform the work of the project. Map-Out is not a valid technique; the other three (brainstorming, lateral thinking, and analysis of alternatives) are techniques used to generate ideas for different approaches.
Q95. Your boss advises you that your final project schedule and budget must be ready to present to the executive steering committee at a meeting later this week. A draft schedule has been completed based on estimates provided by your team. However, they have not yet had a chance to review the schedule to be sure their estimates are appropriate and realistic. Timing constraints make it impossible to complete this review before the meeting. What is the best approach?
Ans: You have a rough order of magnitude (ROM) estimate as you did not have the chance to review your estimate and make it more accurate. However, declaring a rough order of magnitude estimate as an accurate estimate is unethical. ROM estimates usually have a range of -25% to +75% and are not necessarily faulty. Denying the request is not advisable. The best option is to present the estimate to your boss first and explain the basis of the estimate. He can then decide if he wishes to present this to the steering committee or if he would like to postpone the meeting.
Q96. Where would you find a detailed list and description of specific project assumptions associated with the project?
Ans: The Project scope statement lists and describes the specific project assumptions associated with project scope and the potential impact of those assumptions if they prove to be false. The assumptions listed in the detailed project scope statement are typically more numerous and detailed than the project assumptions listed in the project charter.
Q97. The date through which the project has provided actual status and accomplishments is called:
Ans: The date through which the project has provided actual status and accomplishments is called the data date (DD). It is also known as the as- of date or the status date.
Q98. Which of these is not a risk diagramming technique?
Ans: Risk diagramming techniques include: Cause-and-effect diagrams (also known as fishbone diagrams), flowcharts, and influence diagrams.
Q99. Which of the following is a tool or technique of the Develop Project Team process?
Ans: Colocation is a tool and technique of the Develop Project Team process. The other choices are the tools and techniques of the other three Human Resource Management processes.
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Q100. A hierarchical structure of resources organized by resource type category and resource type, used in resource leveling schedules, is known as:
Ans: The Resource Breakdown Structure (RBS) is a hierarchical structure of resources by resource category and resource type, used in resource leveling schedules, and in developing resource-limited schedules. The RBS may also be used to identify and analyze project human resource assignments.
Q101. A Project Manager’s primary professional responsibility is towards:
Ans: A project manager’s professional responsibilities are not limited to any one of the stakeholders. The other choices are correct but not complete by themselves. The expectations of every project stakeholder need to be managed.
Q102. What does a Cost Performance Index (CPI) of more than 1.0 indicate?
Ans: The CPI is calculated as the earned value divided by the actual cost. An index of greater than one indicates that you have spent less than you forecasted to this point.
Q103. Which of the following statements is correct?
Ans: A portfolio refers to a collection of projects or programs that are grouped together to facilitate their effective management. The projects or programs need not be directly related or interdependent.
Q104. A project team member finds that the color scheme of the webpage he is designing appears too gaudy and decides to change it to a mellowed-down color scheme. The original color scheme and the color palette were approved by the customer. The independent testing team flags this as a defect, and there ensues a heated discussion between the team member and the testing team. What is your view?
Ans: The testing team is correct in their findings. Even though the new color scheme might be a better choice than the old one, all changes need to follow the change management process and go through the appropriate change and approval process.
Q105. Which of the following items needs to be kept in mind when relying on risk identification checklists?
Ans: While the risk identification checklist is a useful tool, it should be used in combination with the other tools, since it is impossible to cover all scenarios in one checklist.
Q106. As an external vendor, you are managing a complex software project on a time-and-materials (T&M) contract. One of your team members reports a breakthrough in automating some of the testing activities. This may result in cost savings to the project and completion of the project one month ahead of schedule. Which of the following actions would you take?
Ans: A project manager should always communicate an accurate statement of the project status. There could be subsequent actions to determine how the savings could be best put to use, whether there could be any cost-sharing, etc.—but these would need to be done following the appropriate procedure.
Q107. What is the advantage of preparing an estimate of costs by an outside professional estimator?
Ans: An estimate of costs will serve as a benchmark on proposed responses. Any significant differences in cost estimates can be an indication that the procurement statement of work was deficient or ambiguous, or that the prospective sellers failed to understand the work.
Q108. Which of the following may help in ensuring that certain bidders in the procurement process do not receive preferential treatment and that all prospective sellers have a clear and common understanding of the procurement?
Ans: Bidder conferences allow prospective sellers and buyers to meet prior to the submission of a bid. This ensures that all prospective sellers have a clear and common understanding of the procurement. This usually prevents any bidders from receiving preferential treatment.
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Q109. If you have an unresolved issue while working on a project, what is the best way to communicate that issue?
Ans: An issue log allows you to communicate, track, and resolve project issues.
Q110. Your manager has asked you to include the Human Resource Management Plan and the Schedule Management Plan in your Project Management Plan. Is this the appropriate place for these items?
Ans: These are subsidiary plans and should be included in the Project Management Plan.
Q111. Upon obtaining the project charter, the Project Manager of a project starts acquiring the project team immediately. Is this correct?
Ans: No, the project team is not acquired immediately after the signing of the project charter. Acquisition of a project team starts with HR management planning in the planning process group, followed by the acquisition of the team in the execution phase. The other choices are wrong because the acquisition of the project team is mentioned in the wrong phase.
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